Multiple Choice Questions in Microbiology and Infection
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1

Triple vaccine for the prevention of virus infections protects against:

A1

A. mumps virus
B. coxsackie virus
C. measles virus
D. rubella virus
E. adenoviruses





2

Advantages of sterilisation by ionising radiation include

 

A2

A. short sterilisation time
B. reliability of sterilisation
C. negligible rise in temperature
D. ability to sterilise equipment made of heat-sensitive materials,
   e.g. polystyrene
E. no deleterious effects on glassware or textile fibres







3

Tetanus toxoid

 

A3

A. need not be given for superficial wounds
B. is given three times to babies as a component of triple vaccine
C. confers passive immunity
D. should be avoided in the immunocompromised person
E. administration within the last five years obviates the need to give anti-biotics in a case of tetanus-prone injury








4

Ethylene oxide is commonly used for the sterilisation of

 

A4

A. fibre-optic endoscopes
B. glassware
C. rubber tubings and catheters
D. prosthetic cardiac valves
E. respiratory ventilators





5

Enterococcus faecalis is

 

A5

A. a frequent cause of pyogenic infections
B. a Gram-negative coccus
C. usually sensitive to aminoglycosides
D. often resistant to cephalosporin antibiotics
E. associated with infection in hip prostheses





6

Methicillin-resistant Staphylococcus aureus (MRSA)

 

A6

A. is usually sensitive to vancomycin
B. is more likely to cause deep-seated infection
C. is often resistant to many antistaphylococcal antibiotics
D. may cause asymptomatic colonisation
E. may be phage-typed for epidemiological purposes







7

Aminoglycoside antibiotics such as gentamicin

 

A7

A. act on the bacterial cell wall
B. are active against staphylococci
C. are effective in the treatment of anaerobic myositis
D. are contra-indicated in patients with renal impairment
E. may cause loss of visual acuity in the elderly







8

In bacterial endocarditis

 

A8

A. blood cultures may be negative
B. staphylococci are rare causative organisms
C. the inability to control infection with antibiotic therapy is an indication for replacement of the affected valve
D. combination therapy with a penicillin and an aminoglycoside is advised in most cases
E. cystoscopy is a predisposing factor








9

Epididymo-orchitis

 

A9

A. is associated with prostatitis
B. is a complication of gonococcal urethritis
C. is a manifestation of genital infection with Ureaplasma spp
D. occasionally complicates mumps
E. may be caused by Mycobacterium tuberculosis







10

The antistreptolysin O titre is raised in infections caused by

 

A10

A. Streptococcus sanguis
B. Streptococcus pneumoniae
C. Streptococcus pyogenes
D. Streptococcus bovis
E. Streptococcus mutans





11

The following are causes of gas gangrene in man

 

A11

A. Clostridium histolyticum
B. Clostridium septicum
C. Clostridium novyi
D. Clostridium sporogenes
E. Clostridium perfringens





12

The haemolytic uraemic syndrome

 

A12

A. is more common in children
B. in the majority of cases is caused by infection with verotoxin-producing Escherichia coli
C. is rarely associated with haemorrhagic colitis
D. is caused by an infective agent that may be transmitted with food
E. may present as an acute abdomen








13

In tuberculous infection of the urinary tract

 

A13

A. the renal pelvis is most commonly affected
B. nephrectomy is usually necessary in addition to antituberculous chemotherapy
C. the demonstration of acid-fast bacilli in an early morning sample of urine is usually diagnostic
D. sterile pyuria is a consistent laboratory finding
E. Mycobacterium tuberculosis is the species most commonly involved










14

The diagnosis of pseudomembranous colitis (PMC) is aided by

 

A14

A. colonoscopic biopsy of lesions
B. positive blood culture for Clostridium difficile
C. raised antibody levels in blood to Clostridium difficile toxin
D. isolation of Clostridium difficile from the stool
E. detection of Clostridium difficile toxin in the stool








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